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Report # 1099

Confidential Report

Explanation of the 1099 OID and the 1040V (Voucher) An What Impact It Has On Your Alleged Income Tax Liability

There have been a number of differing interpretations of the use of the 1099-OID and the 1040-V as well as to who is the payer and who is the recipient. Also, there appears to be some differing opinions regarding the term “IRS agent”. In trying to understand the IRS function regarding prepaid and the return to the private, here are some of my thoughts. I will try to put this into an itemized format in order to separate the different issues mentioned.

It is important, I believe, that we look at the use prescribed by the IRS for each form; namely the 1099-OID and the 1040-V.

Instructions for the 1099-OID state that it is a form to be completed by REMICs (Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduit), FASITs (Financial Asset Securitization Investment Trusts), Stock and Bond Brokers, and any other institutions authorized by Congress to convert notes, bonds and other securities into M-1 (liquidity).

1. The 1099-OID (original Issue) deals with our credit as collateral for “newly created money” (that which is created by the use of our credit/SS# – even though */all/* “old” money (money already in circulation) was also created with our credit, or through a pool or blocked grant).

2. Original issue would include all mortgages, bonds, certain securities, car loans, and the like.

3. On the other hand, the 1040-V would be to cover other numerous types of transactions that have not been directly funded by us, those which are *not *funded by unilaterally signed (by us) futures contract* *notes, credit applications and such future contracts. Rather the 1040-V is used for instant use with re- circulated money and bills & statements for products by corporations not governmental approved nor licensed to create money; such as Fanny & Freddie).

4. Is what we are doing cleansing all the money so that it is no longer contraband (it has been accounted for in other words, appropriated to the proper debtor/tax payer fiction)?


5. So, it would seem that the 1099-OID when declared on the 1040, as that which must be returned to the source, (declared in the total amount of income on line 21 of the 1040) that we are due the refund and the “recipient(s)” are the ones required to declare on their returns all the credit they withheld from us, as their income (all the money created using our credit/labor/assets as the collateral). This is the re-funding to us by IRS thus making the IRS a “pass-through/clearing house” for the reallocation of funds to the proper accounts at the U.S. Treasury and to be properly applied to their respective accounts thus bringing our account to 0-).

6. *Next,* The back of the recipient’s copy of the 1099-OID states as follows (quoted below):

“Original issue discount (OID) is the excess of an obligation’s stated redemption price at maturity over its issue price (acquisition price). OID is taxable as interest over the life of the obligation. If you are the holder of an OID obligation, generally you must include an amount of OID in your gross income each year you hold the obligation. Obligations that may have OID include a bond, debenture, note, certificate, or other evidence of indebtedness having a term of more than 1 year. For example, the OID rules may apply to certificates of deposit (CD’s), time deposits, bonus savings plans, and other deposit arrangements, especially if the payment of interest is deferred until maturity. In addition, the OID rules apply to Treasury inflation-indexed securities. See Pub 550. Investment Income and Expenses, for more information.“

(This is the point at which the account is accelerated in time to maturity. To quote from one of your letters, “when the 1040 assessment is made in truth, the connection is made to all agency accounts for the tax loss write-off as negative payment to Treasury and, now, the prize is taken! How or when is the prize going to be paid out?” We can only hope the IRS will not be hi-jacked by the pirates before delivering the prize.)

It continues: “Box 1. Shows, the OID on the obligation for the part of the year you owned it. Report the amount in box 1 as interest income on your income tax return. However, depending on the type of debt instrument, the issue or acquisition date, and other factors (for example, if you paid acquisition or bond premium, or the obligation is a stripped bond or coupon), you may have to figure the correct amount of OID to report on your return.”

7. The taxes required to be paid by the recipient on the 1099-OID will be the difference between the original issue (will be the face value of the note plus all interest calculated to maturity for mortgages, cars, and financed items) and the discount. (Similar to the difference between wholesale and retail). Each corporation/vender only pays tax on the interest received each year less their costs. This changes and becomes all due when the account is accelerated in time to maturity at which time all interest is due


8. From the above, I concluded the following as pertains to Mortgage Companies (REMICs – Real Estate Mortgage Investment Conduits), FASITs, (Financial Asset Securitization Investment Trusts) and Brokerages, etc.

a. In the case of REMICs etc., (where our credit has been hijacked similar but not identical to what the FTB has done) we now file an IRS form 1099-OID for the amount of the note or original document used by the REMIC to obtain the “loan”, etc. which they have requisitioned to their own account. Or we may file any other appropriate 1099, i.e. 1099-B such as would be used for title to real estate or title to a vehicle, etc. or in the case of arrest, the “body”. This is when we become identified as the source. The amount on the 1099-OIDs or other 1099s (red forms only) should include the original amount of the “loan” (face amount of the note) in addition to any “payments” that have been made against the “loan”. These payments may be put on separate 1099-OIDs instead of being included with the note amount. These are all amounts of our credit, which they have requisitioned to use to make claim against us. This is declared on line 21 of the form 1040 as taxable income, as zero on line 63, and then as withholding on Line 64 (as we are not the tax payer and we are only identifying our Treasury Account balance). This will then indicate that we are entitled to have our credit re-funded for the amount on line 64. Can you tell me if, at this point, we now have “true title” to the property that was used as collateral for the “loan” the REMIC etc. made against our credit? Would this remove our “real property”, real estate out the control/possession of the government and give us a fee simple or allodial (absolute) title to the property? If so, this would probably also apply to autos, refrigerators, tractors, etc.

b. Only that which we have discharged with cash, checks, money orders, etc, or subsidized with our credit goes onto the 1099-OID.

c. A 1040-V is prepared for the balance they are claiming is owed. The 1040-V is only for “open” accounts (those showing a “balance owed”) If we pay with a 1040-V, the product will have been purchased with credit. Would this give us the superior title?

d. The REMIC now made a “loan” of our credit (they borrowed our credit at the Treasury because they have been authorized by Congress to do so) using our note as collateral. The REMIC now provides the so-called “lender”, the one on the Trust Deed that has requested the REMIC to borrow our credit in order that they may pretend to be the “lender” on the Trust Deed and submitted the Trust Deed to a Trustee to act as “holder”. Is the Trustee now the holder of the Title/ If so, which Title. Since the Title Insurance Companies are the ones insuring the “Title” to the REMIC are they not responsible to provide a clean title to us through the use of our credit by the REMIC since they claim they only insure the REMIC, but we pay the premium through escrow?


e. The REMIC has passed our credit, that has been converted into futures (Mortgage Backed Securities MBSs) and provided funds to close out any prior mortgages, and equity created by “payments” (the giving of money we labored for) as well as inflation from derivatives.

f. When “billing” us, the mortgage company/bank puts a coupon on the bottom of their “assessment/bill” to us (which we do not owe). This zeroes the account on their books because they have billed us and paid us with the coupon (Roget’s Thesaurus qualifies under the heading of “Money” that money is a token, script, *coupon*, check, etc. and under the heading of “securities” that a security is a stock certificate, street certificate, interim certificate and coupon). (Black’s fourth edition defines a coupon as:) They use the coupon as a disguised payment to *execute* our credit in order that we still believe we owe and will volunteer into the contract. (Similar to what the FTB does) Would we not then use the 1099-B (barter) in lieu of the 1099-OID to claim our credit used to produce the coupon?

g. At that point we really do not owe anything; they owe us what they borrowed of our credit plus interest. They are still withholding our exemption they procured from the Treasury and have failed to pay us the interest.

h. If or when we send a check to them, we have volunteered to contract with the “so-called lender” to make the payments and not use the coupon. They */presume/* we have a contract.

i. So, we can send the 1040-V and use their coupon, for the remainder of the futures contract as we are prepaid and our portion of prepayment being held by the Treasury (unidentified in the pool) with the note or other instrument as collateral, (in